Why

Why is Jude 1:5 translated ‘Jesus’ instead of ‘Joshua’?

Why is Jude 1:5 translated ‘Jesus’ instead of ‘Joshua’?

Jude 1:5 has major textual variants. One reads
"Ὑπομνῆσαι δὲ ὑμᾶς βούλομαι, εἰδότας ὑμᾶς ἅπαξ πάντα, ὅτι Ἰησοῦς λαὸν ἐκ γῆς Αἰγύπτου σώσας τὸ δεύτερον τοὺς μὴ πιστεύσαντας ἀπώλεσεν"
Why is Ἰησοῦς translated as ‘Jesus’ instead of …

In Job 42 why was Elihu not equally rebuked?

In Job 42 why was Elihu not equally rebuked?

In the final chapters of Job, what happened to Elihu son of Barakel the Buzite, of the clan of Ram? In Job 42:7 God rebuked job’s friends and ordered them to offer burnt offering to Job for misrepresenting him. Why was Elihu excluded? Was …

Why does Mark provide two feeding accounts?

Why does Mark provide two feeding accounts?

The Gospel According to Mark, in contrast to the other three gospels, provides two separate feeding miracles wherein Jesus multiplies loaves and fishes to feed five thousand and four thousand respectively. Both accounts are very similar, t…