john

What is the meaning of "water and blood" in 1 John 5:6?

In 1 John 5:6 John uses water and blood as symbolic short hand, clearly expecting his audience to know the meaning of these two liquids.

6 This is the one who came by water and blood—Jesus Christ. He did not
come by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit who
testifies, because the Spirit is the truth. 7 For there are three that
testify: 8 the Spirit, the water and the blood; and the three are
in agreement. 9 We accept human testimony, but God’s testimony is
greater because it is the testimony of God, which he has given about
his Son.

At its most basic 1 John 5:6 operates as a counter claim to those who hold that Jesus Christ came in water but not in blood. John holds that Jesus Christ came by both water and blood. A counter group appears to believe He came only in water. The structure of this verse as an implicit rebuttal begs the question of what does it refute. What is the meaning of water and blood?

In John 1:35, who were the two disciples of John the Baptist?

The Greek text of John 1:35 according to the Textus Receptus states,

ΛΕʹ Τῇ ἐπαύριον πάλιν εἱστήκει ὁ Ἰωάννης καὶ ἐκ τῶν μαθητῶν αὐτοῦ δύο TR, 1550

which is translated as,

35 On the day after, John, and two of his disciples, had been standing again,

Are these two disciples of John the Baptist ever identified?

When is the "last day" that is referred to in the book of John?

When is the “last day” that is referred to in the book of John?
The Rapture? The Second Coming? A series of “last days’?

John 6:39
And this is the will of him who sent me, that I shall lose none of all those he has given me, but raise them up at the last day

John 6:40
For my Father’s will is that everyone who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

John 6:44
“No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws them, and I will raise them up at the last day

John 6:54
Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?

John 1:1 reads as follows:

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

I’m wondering about the “πρὸς τὸν Θεόν”, translated as “with god.”

But, I’m more asking about the connotative meaning of the word, or the spectrum of meaning it has, other than “with”. What is the author trying to say about the relation between the λόγος and the Θεὸς?