
The Already-but-not-yet Rapture Parousia Explained with the Greek NT
The above analysis is a linear time indication. Since the Elder’s time frame differed form the current time frame, this is merely an analysis…
The above analysis is a linear time indication. Since the Elder’s time frame differed form the current time frame, this is merely an analysis…
This conversation comes from a small part of the course titled Jews and Greeks on Life and the Afterlife. You can enroll HERE and learn more about their respective concepts of origin, afterlife, and resurrection. Sign up to be a student at IBC…
Most translations of Matthew 28:19 begin with:
“Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them …
What "of" means here is ambiguous:
All people from all nations should be baptized. (Proselytize)
A few peopl…
[2Pe 2:4-6 YLT] 4 For if God messengers who sinned did not spare, but with chains of thick gloom, having cast [them] down to Tartarus, did deliver [them] to judgment, having been reserved, 5 and the old world did not spare, but the eighth…
I’m curious specifically regarding the translation of the word “generation” here in Matthew 24:34, Mark 13:30, and Luke 21:32.
Matthew 24:34 (NIV)
Truly I tell you, this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things …
There is No Jew or Greek, BUT a Great Mocking Bird 23 But before belief came, we were being guarded under Torah, having been…
Paul writes in Eph 5:6:
for the indignation of God is coming on the Sons of unpersuadableness (loosely translated)
The verb is present tense, middle/passive voice which indicates that these people are already suffering …
Mark and Matthew record Jesus speaking Aramiac from the cross:
And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, “Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?” which means, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Mark 15:34 ESV)
And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Matthew 27:46 ESV)
All other times they record Jesus words using the Greek language. It is accepted that Aramaic was the language Jesus spoke. However, it is obvious that many, if not all of the Apostles were able to communicate in both Aramaic and Greek (and probably knew Latin). So it seems likely that Jesus also was able to speak in both Aramaic and Greek.
Mark and Matthew are purposeful to make the point that when Jesus quoted Psalm 22 He used Aramaic. Consequently they are purposeful to exclude any possible confusion or claim that Jesus quoted the Greek translation of the Psalm, which in the Septuagint is significantly different at that point: ὁ θεὸς ὁ θεός μου πρόσχες μοι (O God, my God, take heed to me). Quoting the Greek lacks the personal pronoun at the beginning and would also have Jesus asking God to take heed of Him, something the Aramaic precludes.
While the use of the Aramaic quotation can be seen as purposeful to ensure Jesus correctly quotes the Psalm, it also gives reason to question the assertion that all of the other sayings of Jesus were exclusively spoken in Aramaic and translated into Greek.
What is the evidence Jesus spoke exclusively in Aramaic and never used the Greek language?
How do the Greek and Hebrew read about Acts 1:8? (Finis J. Dake)
Greek Words About Sanctification The New Testament Greek word for “sanctify” is “hagiazo”. “Hagiazo” means 2 “consecrate, dedicate…purify” 1 or “to set apart…
LANGUAGE OF THE NEW TESTAMENT KOINE GREEK: Koine Greek (common Language) was the street language spoken in homes and shops. It had a brogue…
7 tips for first-semester Biblical Greek: Tip #1: Don’t depend on your teacher or your textbook: Everything depends on you! //NO-o-o-o Pack Rat [03/15/2015…