greek

Could μονογενής mean simply "unique"?

Could μονογενής mean simply "unique"?

In this article Hebrew scholar Michael Heiser makes the claim that the term μονογενής (monogenēs) in John 3:16 means “unique” rather than “only-begotten.” However, he does not provide citations, referring to “Scholars of Greek.”

Daniel 7:14 douleuō vs. latreuō?

Daniel 7:14 douleuō vs. latreuō?

I have found two different renderings of פְלַח (pelach) at Daniel 7:14 in the LXX. One is δουλεύω (douleuō) and the other is λατρεύω (latreuō)
Are Blueletterbible and Biblehub citing different source texts for the LXX?
Can anyone shed some…

Question about translation of Romans 4:9

Question about translation of Romans 4:9

In church this morning, I stumbled across Romans 4:9 in my bilingual English/Spanish NIV/NVI Bible, and was puzzled by the Spanish translation of this verse.1 (Emphasis added for sake of comparison)

In English, the text reads:

Is thi…

What does μὴ ἐγκακεῖν mean in Luke 18:1?

What does μὴ ἐγκακεῖν mean in Luke 18:1?

What does μὴ ἐγκακεῖν mean in Luke 18:1? (Greek text from NA27)
Note ἐγκακέω is the preposition ἔν combined with the verb κακέω. In BDAG “ἐγκακέω is defined as 1. become weary, tired w. ptc. foll. … 2. lose heart, despair …; be afraid, o…

Translating Acts 5:32

Translating Acts 5:32

Acts 5:32 Peter says,

“And we are witnesses of these things; and so is the Holy Spirit, whom
God hath given to them that obey him.”

My reading of Greek grammar tells me that obey is a present participle that should normally denote an act…

Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?

Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?

John 7:15 (ESV):

The Jews therefore marveled, saying, “How is it that this man has learning,1 when he has never studied?”

The footnote is:

7:15 Or this man knows his letters

So there are two questions:

Which translation g…