Son of theos vs son of kyrios

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I’m hesitant to speak in absolute terms about this, but perhaps it can be generally agreed upon that in many cases where we see Χριστὸς we tend not to see κυριος as a relational lexicon to describe the godhead. Rather, it virtually always turns out to be that the Greek primary sources have God in the "son of God" denoted by Θεοῦ. Consider Nestle 1904 of John 11:27:

λέγει αὐτῷ Ναί, Κύριε· ἐγὼ πεπίστευκα ὅτι σὺ εἶ ὁ Χριστὸς ὁ Υἱὸς τοῦ
Θεοῦ ὁ εἰς τὸν κόσμον ἐρχόμενος.

And yet a linguistic analysis of the Septuagint would suggest that Yahweh takes the Greek κυριος.

My understanding is not perfect, but it does seem that Greek scribal tradition veers away from affirming that Christ is the son of Yahweh. We cannot go back in time and read their minds, but it seems to me that this lexicography is consonant with either:

1. Jesus is Yahweh
2. Yahweh resides outside the godhead

However, I’m very skeptical about my own inferences here because both are quite bizarre.

Question

What, if anything, does this hermeneutic (and the volume of others like it) tell us about how Greek scribes viewed the relationship of Christ with the Judean Deity?