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| PentecostalTheology.comIS THE RAPTURE IN 2 THESSALONIANS 2:3?
Tom’s Perspectives
by Thomas Ice
Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes
first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,
—2 Thessalonians 2:3
I believe that there is a strong possibility that 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is speaking of the
rapture. What do I mean? Some pretribulationists, like myself, think that the Greek
noun apostasia, usually translated “apostasy,” is a reference to the rapture and should be
translated “departure.” Thus, this passage would be saying that the day of the Lord
will not come until the rapture comes before it. If apostasia is a reference to a physical
departure, then 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is strong evidence for pretribulationism.
THE MEANING OF APOSTASIA
The Greek noun apostasia is only used twice in the New Testament. In addition to 2
Thessalonians 2:3, it occurs in Acts 21:21 where, speaking of Paul, it is said, “that you
are teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake (apostasia)Moses.” The
word is a Greek compound of apo “ from” and istemi “stand.” Thus, it has the core
meaning of “away from” or “departure.” The Liddell and Scott Greek Lexicon defines
apostasia first as “defection, revolt;” then secondly as “departure, disappearance.”1
Gordon Lewis explains how the verb from which the noun apostasia is derived supports
the basic meaning of departure in the following:
The verb may mean to remove spatially. There is little reason then to deny
that the noun can mean such a spatial removal or departure. Since the noun
is used only one other time in the New Testament of apostasy from Moses
(Acts 21:21), we can hardly conclude that its Biblical meaning is necessarily
determined. The verb is used fifteen times in the New Testament. Of these
fifteen, only three have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke
8;13; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb 3:12). The word is used for departing from iniquity (2
Tim. 2:19), from ungodly men(1 Tim. 6:5), from the temple (Luke 2:27), from
the body (2 Cor. 12:8), and from persons (Acts 12:10; Luke 4:13).2
“It is with full assurance of proper exegetical study and with complete confidence in the
original languages,” concludes Daniel Davey, “that the word meaning of apostasia is
defined as departure.”3 Paul Lee Tan adds the following:
What precisely does Paul mean when he says that “the falling away” (2:3)
must come before the tribulation? The definite article “the” denotes that this
will be a definite event, an event distinct from the appearance of the Man of
Sin. The Greek word for “falling away”, taken by itself, does not mean
religious apostasy or defection. Neither does the word mean “to fall,” as the
Greeks have another word for that. [pipto, I fall; TDI] The best translation of
the word is “to depart.” The apostle Paul refers here to a definite event which
he calls “the departure,” and which will occur just before the start of the
tribulation. This is the rapture of the church.4
– 2 –
So the word has the core meaning of departure and it depends upon the context to
determine whether it is used to mean physical departure or an abstract departure such
as departure from the faith.
TRANSLATION HISTORY
The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either
“departure” or “departing.” They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible
(1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible
(1583); Geneva Bible (1608).5 This supports the notion that the word truly means
“departure.” In fact, Jerome’s Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the
time of A.D. 400 renders apostasia with the “word discessio, meaning ‘departure.’”6 Why
was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of
“departure”?
Theodore Beza, the Swiss reformer was the first to transliterate apostasia and create a
new word, rather than translate it as others had done. The translators of the King James
Version were the first to introduce the new rendering of apostasia as “falling away.”
Most English translators have followed the KJV and Beza in departing from translating
apostasia as “departure.” No good reason was ever given.
THE USE OF THE ARTICLE
It is important to note that Paul uses a definite article with the noun apostasia. What
does this mean? Davey notes the following:
Since the Greek language does not need an article to make the noun
definite, it becomes clear that with the usage of the article reference is being
made to something in particular. In II Thessalonians 2:3 the word apostasia is
prefaced by the definite article which means that Paul is pointing to a
particular type of departure clearly known to the Thessalonian church.7
Dr. Lewis provides a likely answer when he notes that the definite article serves to
make a word distinct and draw attention to it. In this instance he believes that its
purpose is “to denote a previous reference.” “The departure Paul previously referred to
was ‘our being gathered to him’ (v. 1) and our being ‘caught up’ with the Lord and the
raptured dead in the clouds (1 Thess. 4:17),” notes Dr. Lewis.8 The “departure” was
something that Paul and his readers clearly had a mutual understanding about. Paul
says in verse 5, “Do you not remember that while I was still with you, I was telling you
these things?”
The use of the definite article would also support the notion that Paul spoke of a
clear, discernable event. A physical departure, like the rapture would fit just such a
notion. However, the New Testament teaches that apostasy had already arrived in the
first century (cf. Acts 20:27–32; 1 Tim. 4:1–5; 2 Tim. 3:1–9; 2 Pet. 2:1–3; Jude 3–4, 17–21)
and thus, such a process would not denote a clear event as demanded by the language
of this passage. Understanding departure as the rapture would satisfy the nuance of
this text. E. Schuyler English explains as follows:
Again, how would the Thessalonians, or Christians in any century since, be
qualified to recognize the apostasy when it should come, assuming, simply
for the sake of this inquiry, that the Church might be on earth when it does
come? There has been apostasy from God, rebellion against Him, since time
– 3 –
began.9
Whatever Paul is referring to in his reference to “the departure,” was something that
both the Thessalonian believers and he had discussed in-depth previously. When we
examine Paul’s first letter to the Thessalonians, he never mentions the doctrine of
apostasy, however, virtually every chapter in that epistle speaks of the rapture (cf.
1:9–10; 2:19; probably 3:13; 4:13–17; 5:1–11). In these passages, Paul has used a variety
of Greek terms to describe the rapture. It should not be surprising that he uses another
term to reference the rapture in 2 Thessalonians 2:3. Dr. House tells us:
Remember, the Thessalonians had been led astray by the false teaching
(2:2–3) that the Day of the Lord had already come. This was confusing
because Paul offered great hope, in the first letter, of a departure to be with
Christ and a rescue from god’s wrath. Now a letter purporting to be from
Paul seems to say that they would first have to go through the Day of the
Lord. Paul then clarified his prior teaching by emphasizing that they had no
need to worry. They could again be comforted because the departure he had
discussed in his first letter, and in his teaching while with them, was still the
truth. The departure of Christians to be with Christ, and the subsequent
revelation of the lawless one, Paul argues, is proof that the Day of the Lord
had not begun as they had thought. This understanding of apostasia makes
much more sense than the view that they are to be comforted (v. 2) because a
defection from the faith must precede the Day of the Lord. The entire second
chapter (as well as 1 Thessalonians 4:18; 5:11) serves to comfort (see vv. 2, 3,
17), supplied by a reassurance of Christ’s coming as taught in his first letter.10
DEPARTURE AND THE RESTRAINER
Since pretribulationists believe that the restrainer mentioned in verses 6 and 7 is the
Holy Spirit and teaches a pre-trib rapture, then it should not be surprising to see that
there is a similar progression of thought in the progression of verse 3. Allan MacRae,
president of Faith Theological Seminary in a letter to Schuyler English has said the
following concerning this matter:
I wonder if you have noticed the striking parallel between this verse and
verses 7–8, a little further down. According to your suggestion verse 3
mentions the departure of the church as coming first, and then tells of the
revealing of the man of sin. In verses 7 and 8 we find the identical sequence.
Verse 7 tells of the removal of the Church; verse 8 says: “And then shall that
Wicked be revealed.” Thus close examination of the passage shows an inner
unity and coherence, if we take the word apostasia in its general sense of
“departure,” while a superficial examination would easily lead to an
erroneous interpretation as “falling away” because of the proximity of the
mention of the man of sin.11
Kenneth Wuest, a Greek scholar from Moody Bible Institute added the following
contextual support to taking apostasia as a physical departure:
But then hee apostasia of which Paul is speaking, precedes the revelation of
Antichrist in his true identity, and is to katechon that which holds back his
– 4 –
revelation (2:6). The hee apostasia, therefore, cannot be either a general
apostasy in Christendom which does precede the coming of Antichrist, nor
can it be the particular apostasy which is the result of his activities in making
himself the alone object of worship. Furthermore, that which holds back his
revelation (vs. 3) is vitally connected with hoo katechoon (vs. 7), He who holds
back the same event. The latter is, in my opinion, the Holy Spirit and His
activities in the Church. All of which means that I am driven to the
inescapable conclusion that the hee apostasia (vs. 3) refers to the Rapture of the
Church which precedes the Day of the Lord, and holds back the revelation of
the Man of Sin who ushers in the world-aspect of that period.12
CONCLUSION
The fact that apostasia most likely has the meaning of physical departure is a clear
support for pretribulationism. If this is true, (Dr. Tim LaHaye and I believe that it is),
then it means that a clear prophetic sequence is laid out by Paul early in his Apostolic
ministry. Paul teaches in 2 Thessalonians 2 that the rapture will occur first, before the
Day of the Lord commences. It is not until after the beginning of the Day of the Lord
that the Antichrist is released, resulting in the events described by him in chapter 2 of 2
Thessalonians. This is the only interpretation that provides hope for a discomforted
people. Maranatha!
ENDNOTES
1 Henry George Liddell and Henry Scott, A Greek-English Lexicon, Revised with a Supplement [1968] by Sir
Henry Stuart Jones and Roderick McKenzie (Oxford, Eng.: Oxford University Press, 1940), p. 218.
2 Gordon R. Lewis, “Biblical Evidence for Pretribulationism,” Bibliotheca Sacra (vol. 125, no. 499; July
1968), p. 218.
3 Daniel K. Davey, “The ‘Apostesia’ of II Thessalonians 2:3,” Th.M. thesis, Detroit Baptist Theological
Seminary, May 1982, p. 27.
4 Paul Lee Tan, The Interpretation of Prophecy (Winona Lake, IN: Assurance Publishers, 1974), p. 341.
5 H. Wayne House, “Apostasia in 2 Thessalonians 2:3: Apostasy or Rapture?” in Thomas Ice and Timothy
Demy, eds., When the Trumpet Sounds: Today’s Foremost Authorities Speak Out on End-Time Controversies
(Eugene, OR: Harvest House, 1995), p. 270.
6 House, “Apostesia”, p. 270.
7 Davey, “Apostesia”, p. 47.
8 Gordon R. Lewis & Bruce A. Demarest, Integrative Theology 3 vols in 1 (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1996),
vol. 3, p. 420.
9 E. Schuyler English, Re-Thinking the Rapture (Neptune, NJ: Loizeaux Brothers, 1954), p. 70.
10 House, “Apostesia”, pp. 275–76.
11 Allan A. MacRae, Letter to E. Schuyler English, published in “Let the Prophets Speak,” Our Hope, (vol.
LVI, num. 12; June 1950), p. 725.
12 Kenneth S. Wuest, Letter to E. Schuyler English, published in “Let the Prophets Speak,” Our Hope, (vol.
LVI, num. 12; June 1950), p. 731.
Anonymous
The rapture is is I Thes, not II Thes.
II Thes. 2 is a discussion about the middle of the Trib when the Holy Spirit stops restraining evil, bringing the false “peace and safety” of the one world government to an end.
Satan is then cast down, knowing his time is short (Rev. 12). He indwells the world leader, enters the Temple and commits THE apostasy of all apostasies: declaring that he is god.
He breaks the covenant with Israel, persecutes the saints, and God begins to pour out His wrath on the wicked world.
Anonymous
Duane L Burgess that’s a pretty good explanation and summary of events.
2 Thessalonians 2:1 gives us the subject that is in question. The calling up of the church.
2: Paul tells us not to be deceived by anyone. That the day of Christ is at hand. Therefore Paul Is giving us the defining phrase of the rapture which is the day of Christ.
3: that day that is in question will not come until two events occur first.
Which I agree with you in saying that these two events do occur midway through the 70th week. So therefore the rapture must come some time after this. Which completely ruled out a pre trib rapture. There is absolutely no way around it.
If we try to say that the removal of the restrainer is infact the removal of the Holy Spirit thus rapture of the church, then we have contradicted Paul’s statement that two things must come first.
Because this is what Paul is saying, the rapture cannot happen until after the restrainer is removed which that reveals the man of sin, and the apostasy occurs. Once those things occur then the church can be taken up.
Anonymous
Duane L Burgess “when the Holy Spirit stops restraining evil”
I fully acknowledge the Holy Spirit restraining the evil that still exist within my members. And I acknowledge the Holy Spirit working within every single believer who has been reborn.
But how does the Holy Spirit restrain the evil in the non believers?
How did the Holy Spirit stop Hitler? How did the Holy Spirit stop the abortion of millions of baby’s?
The Holy Spirit works on individuals. One at a time.
I saw on the news the other day where a mother who had post partum depression, killed her baby and her older child. And I just thought to myself, how I just wonder what the outcome could of been if only if someone would have shared the gospel with her.
Truly I tell you the church doesn’t need to be taken up out of the way in order for that evil one to be revealed. No, if that’s what it takes the evil one could reveal himself at any moment because the church is sitting back on sidelines watching this ole world just getting more evil by the day.
Anonymous
First, normally the wedding or marriage (the second step) did not take place at the home of the bride.
Second, in Bible times the marriage was a joyous, festive occasion.
It should be noted that the mood at the Second Coming will be just the opposite of the joyous, festive mood of the marriage. The description of the Second Coming in Revelation 19 portrays Christ, not as a happy groom coming with joyful companions to take His bride to His Father’s house, but as a terrifying warrior-king coming with armies from Heaven to administer judgment and death upon rebellious humanity.
Third, it was customary for the marriage supper to be held at the home of the groom or his parents, not at the home of the bride.
Fourth, the marriage supper began on the same night that the groom took his bride to his father’s house and consummated their marriage through physical union.
Fifth, the Old Testament teaches that during the Millennium there will be another marriage supper, different from the marriage supper of the Lamb.
The marriage supper of the Lamb should take place at Christ’s Father’s house in Heaven, not at His bride’s dwelling place on earth.
REVELATION 19:7–9 https://www.pentecostaltheology.com/the-marriage-supper-of-the-lamb-is-in-heaven/
Anonymous
Troy Day is it me or does this
Revelation 19:1-9 (KJV) 1 And after these things I heard a great voice of much people in heaven, saying, Alleluia; Salvation, and glory, and honour, and power, unto the Lord our God: 2 For true and righteous [are] his judgments: for he hath judged the great whore, which did corrupt the earth with her fornication, and hath avenged the blood of his servants at her hand. 3 And again they said, Alleluia. And her smoke rose up for ever and ever. 4 And the four and twenty elders and the four beasts fell down and worshipped God that sat on the throne, saying, Amen; Alleluia. 5 And a voice came out of the throne, saying, Praise our God, all ye his servants, and ye that fear him, both small and great. 6 And I heard as it were the voice of a great multitude, and as the voice of many waters, and as the voice of mighty thunderings, saying, Alleluia: for the Lord God omnipotent reigneth. 7 Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready. 8 And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints. 9 And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed [are] they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb. And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.
Really seems to follow this.
Revelation 18:6-8 (KJV) 6 Reward her even as she rewarded you, and double unto her double according to her works: in the cup which she hath filled fill to her double. 7 How much she hath glorified herself, and lived deliciously, so much torment and sorrow give her: for she saith in her heart, I sit a queen, and am no widow, and shall see no sorrow. 8 Therefore shall her plagues come in one day, death, and mourning, and famine; and she shall be utterly burned with fire: for strong [is] the Lord God who judgeth her.
Anonymous
Neil Steven Lawrence ASK me why the usual suspects like Brett Dobbs Link Hudson are NOT commenting under here 🙂 It’s funny how we think of natural laws like motion, gravity and mathematics as firm and inflexible. Modern man thinks of moral laws as malleable. Remember though that the 10 commandments were not written on a flimsy rubber band they were written in stone. Remember also that the natural laws were left for clever men to discover . The moral law was written clearly with the finger of God so that men are without excuse. God is the ultimate law giver he is the one who made the laws of nature and mathematics. He is also the One who made the moral law.
This fact is a great equalizer. It makes us all guilty in the eyes of a perfect moral law giver. It makes us all sinners in need of the Savior and God’s forgiving grace. There is none righteous no not one. For all have sinned and come short of the glory of God. For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
Jesus Christ suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the spirit. Today, You and I stand on level ground at the foot of his cross. Let go of your pride and cry out to him, “God have mercy on me a sinner.”
For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son, that whosoever believes in him should not perish but have everlasting life. Turn from sin and trust the Savior today. https://www.pentecostaltheology.com/2-thessalonians-21-3-the-day-of-christ-and-apostasia-by-mark-a-becker/
Anonymous
Hakuna ndrama za mipango ya kando maziko ya magoha… man was principled
Anonymous
where is your 2 thes posts and how do they include the resurrection ? Link Hudson Ricky Grimsley Brett Dobbs
Anonymous
Troy Day 2 Thessalonians 2 verse 1 describes an action that will take place. The action that takes place is the calling up of the church. Which is the resurrection and rapture.
Verse 2 tells us which day it will happen on. The day of Christ. Or in some translations. The day of the Lord.
Verse 3 tells us that two other events must happen before the day of christ occurs.
It’s literally that simple. Don’t over complicate it.
Anonymous
Brett Dobbs where does 2 Thessalonians 2 verse 1 say is the resurrection and rapture. – way I read it sure sounds like 2 separate events separated by AND – if they were the same Paul would have said OR Michael Chauncey Neil Steven Lawrence
Anonymous
Troy Day read I Thessalonians 4. The Lord shall descend. After that the resurrection then the rapture.
Anonymous
Troy Day KJV- by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together
ESV- the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him
NIV-the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him,
NASB-regarding the fncoming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him,
The “coming” that Paul is referring to here is a reference to the descent from heaven. And the 2nd action is the gathering.
1 Thessalonians 4:16-16 (KJV) For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
There is the action of coming or descending from heaven to the clouds. Then there’s the action of gathering from the clouds.
Here is a vision of that action.
Revelation 14:14-16 (KJV) 14 And I looked, and behold a white cloud, and upon the cloud [one] sat like unto the Son of man, having on his head a golden crown, and in his hand a sharp sickle. 15 And another angel came out of the temple, crying with a loud voice to him that sat on the cloud, Thrust in thy sickle, and reap: for the time is come for thee to reap; for the harvest of the earth is ripe. 16 And he that sat on the cloud thrust in his sickle on the earth; and the earth was reaped.