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| PentecostalTheology.comIn Romans 10, Paul is discussing the Lord Jesus, and in verse 13, he writes (NKJV, emphasis mine):
For “whoever calls on the name of the LORD shall be saved.”
The reason "LORD" is capitalized by the New King James Version here is that in Joel 2:32, the original verse Paul quotes, the word used is YHWH. Yet Paul uses this verse in reference to Jesus. If the subject of Joel 2:32 is YHWH/Jehovah, and if Joel 2:32 applies to Jesus (as says Paul), then does Joel 2:32 refer to Jesus as YHWH/Jehovah? Thanks!
Anonymous
John the Baptist prepared the way for the same YHWH.