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An English Bible translation which attributes it as Hebrew:
John 19:17, KJV: And he bearing his cross went forth into a place called the place of a skull, which is called in the Hebrew Golgotha:
As Aramaic:
John 19:17, ESV: and he went out, bearing his own cross, to the place called The Place of a Skull, which in Aramaic is called Golgotha.
Both interprations could not be correct, and the greek seems to imply the author was attributing the word as Hebrew. Which is correct and why?
Varnel Watson
Good Bible text question / discussion? Ricky Grimsley Tony Conger
Ricky Grimsley
Looks like aramaic is the proper translation. Even according to the strongs. Chaldee is aramaic is it not?
Varnel Watson
Chaldee/aramaic – very minor dialect variations