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| PentecostalTheology.comPlease understand that this question requires the ability to critically consider the Greek text, translate word-for-word, understand what it says, and explain its contextual significance.
Rev 3:10 (BLB) – Because you have kept the word of My patient
endurance, I also will keep you out of the hour of the trial being
about to come upon the whole inhabited world, to try those dwelling
upon the earth.
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU Ted Shoemaker tedsmath at yahoo.com
Sun Feb 1 18:28:54 EST 2004
[] METANOIW 2 Corinthians 7:9-10 [] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU Hello,Revelation 3:1 reads, in part:TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU”the seven spirits of God”.I have seen more than one English-language Bible with a footnote that reads, “Or, the sevenfold Spirit of God.”It is easy to understand why, for theological purposes, one might want the footnoted translation. Are there any linguistic reasons for such a translation?Thank you very much!Ted ShoemakerMadison, Wisconsin, USA=====Ted Shoemaker “If homeschoolers can’t be socialized, they’ll just have to settle for being civilized.” (Robert Morrison)__________________________________Do you Yahoo!?Yahoo! SiteBuilder – Free web site building tool. Try it!http://webhosting.yahoo.com/ps/sb/
[] METANOIW 2 Corinthians 7:9-10[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Sun Feb 1 19:09:59 EST 2004
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU [] IOUDAIOS and metonymy In a message dated 2/1/2004 6:29:38 PM Eastern Standard Time, tedsmath at yahoo.com writes:Revelation 3:1 reads, in part:TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU”the seven spirits of God”.I have seen more than one English-language Bible with a footnote that reads, “Or, the sevenfold Spirit of God.”It is easy to understand why, for theological purposes, one might want the footnoted translation. Are there any linguistic reasons for such a translation?Thank you very much!You might also notice that in Re 1.4 you will also find KAI APO TWN hEPTA PNEUMATWN hA ENWPION TOU QRONOU AUTOUSimilarly in Re 4.5hA EISIN TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOUIn 5.6, however, the reading is uncertain since A happens to be the preferred text for the Apocalypse and lacks hEPTA though Sinaiticus and many others have it.I would consider “seven-fold” as simply theologically motivated. Sounds nice though.gfsomsel
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU[] IOUDAIOS and metonymy
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU Ted Shoemaker tedsmath at yahoo.com
Sun Feb 1 18:28:54 EST 2004
[] METANOIW 2 Corinthians 7:9-10 [] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU Hello,Revelation 3:1 reads, in part:TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU”the seven spirits of God”.I have seen more than one English-language Bible with a footnote that reads, “Or, the sevenfold Spirit of God.”It is easy to understand why, for theological purposes, one might want the footnoted translation. Are there any linguistic reasons for such a translation?Thank you very much!Ted ShoemakerMadison, Wisconsin, USA=====Ted Shoemaker “If homeschoolers can’t be socialized, they’ll just have to settle for being civilized.” (Robert Morrison)__________________________________Do you Yahoo!?Yahoo! SiteBuilder – Free web site building tool. Try it!http://webhosting.yahoo.com/ps/sb/
[] METANOIW 2 Corinthians 7:9-10[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Sun Feb 1 19:09:59 EST 2004
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU [] IOUDAIOS and metonymy In a message dated 2/1/2004 6:29:38 PM Eastern Standard Time, tedsmath at yahoo.com writes:Revelation 3:1 reads, in part:TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU”the seven spirits of God”.I have seen more than one English-language Bible with a footnote that reads, “Or, the sevenfold Spirit of God.”It is easy to understand why, for theological purposes, one might want the footnoted translation. Are there any linguistic reasons for such a translation?Thank you very much!You might also notice that in Re 1.4 you will also find KAI APO TWN hEPTA PNEUMATWN hA ENWPION TOU QRONOU AUTOUSimilarly in Re 4.5hA EISIN TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOUIn 5.6, however, the reading is uncertain since A happens to be the preferred text for the Apocalypse and lacks hEPTA though Sinaiticus and many others have it.I would consider “seven-fold” as simply theologically motivated. Sounds nice though.gfsomsel
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU[] IOUDAIOS and metonymy
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU revelation info at revelationjesuschrist.com
Mon Feb 2 01:48:12 EST 2004
[] Acts 8.6 [] Fwd: FlashCord software – Announcement >From Ted ShoemakerRevelation 3:1 reads, in part:TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU”the seven spirits of God”.I have seen more than one English-language Bible with afootnote that reads, “Or, the sevenfold Spirit of God.”It is easy to understand why, for theological purposes, onemight want the footnoted translation. Are there anylinguistic reasons for such a translation?Hi TedThe linguistic reason, in my opinion, is that the Seven Spirits of God aretitle of God and a rhetorical device. I think each of the seven Spirits ofGod is a messenger (an angel) to each of the seven cities. In Rev 3:1,”The-one having the 7 Spirits” is “the one-who-conquers” (nikao), meaningpeople in the assemblies, although many would argue that it is Jesus(referring back to Rev 1:16).God is referred to as a Spirit sixteen times in Revelation. The term “SevenSpirits of God” appears four times in Revelation.01:04 Grace to-you and Peace from “The Being” and “The Was” and “The Coming”and from the Seven Spirits who-are in-view of his Throne.02:07 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.02:11 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.02:17 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.02:29 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.03:01 Says The-One having the Seven Spirits of God and the Seven Stars.03:06 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.03:13 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.03:22 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.04:05 and Seven Torches of Fire burning in-sight of-the Throne which are theSeven Spirits of God.05:06 a-Little-Lamb having-stood like having-been-slain, having Seven Hornsand Seven Eyes which are the Seven Spirits of God having-been-sent into allthe Earth.11:11 And after the Three Days and a-Half a-Spirit of-Life out of Godentered in them14:13 Yes! says The Spirit so-that they-will-rest out of theirCutting-Slaughter for their Works follow with them.19:10 For the Testimony of-Jesus is The Spirit of-Prophecy.22:06 And The Lord, The God of-the Spirits …22:17 And The Spirit and The Bride (The New Jerusalem) say Come!God is referred to as a Spirit many times in the Old Testament. The power ofGod to replicate himself as Seven Spirits or Eyes that “go forth into theEarth” as stated in Rev 5:6 (the last mention of the 7 Spirits) comes fromthe Book of Zechariah … “This is The Word of the LORD to Zerub’babel … Not by might, nor byPower, but by my Spirit, says the LORD of Hosts … These Seven are the Eyesof the LORD, which range through the whole earth” (Zech 4:6,10)Daniel Gleason
[] Acts 8.6[] Fwd: FlashCord software – Announcement
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU revelation info at revelationjesuschrist.com
Mon Feb 2 01:48:12 EST 2004
[] Acts 8.6 [] Fwd: FlashCord software – Announcement >From Ted ShoemakerRevelation 3:1 reads, in part:TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU”the seven spirits of God”.I have seen more than one English-language Bible with afootnote that reads, “Or, the sevenfold Spirit of God.”It is easy to understand why, for theological purposes, onemight want the footnoted translation. Are there anylinguistic reasons for such a translation?Hi TedThe linguistic reason, in my opinion, is that the Seven Spirits of God aretitle of God and a rhetorical device. I think each of the seven Spirits ofGod is a messenger (an angel) to each of the seven cities. In Rev 3:1,”The-one having the 7 Spirits” is “the one-who-conquers” (nikao), meaningpeople in the assemblies, although many would argue that it is Jesus(referring back to Rev 1:16).God is referred to as a Spirit sixteen times in Revelation. The term “SevenSpirits of God” appears four times in Revelation.01:04 Grace to-you and Peace from “The Being” and “The Was” and “The Coming”and from the Seven Spirits who-are in-view of his Throne.02:07 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.02:11 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.02:17 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.02:29 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.03:01 Says The-One having the Seven Spirits of God and the Seven Stars.03:06 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.03:13 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.03:22 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-theAssemblies.04:05 and Seven Torches of Fire burning in-sight of-the Throne which are theSeven Spirits of God.05:06 a-Little-Lamb having-stood like having-been-slain, having Seven Hornsand Seven Eyes which are the Seven Spirits of God having-been-sent into allthe Earth.11:11 And after the Three Days and a-Half a-Spirit of-Life out of Godentered in them14:13 Yes! says The Spirit so-that they-will-rest out of theirCutting-Slaughter for their Works follow with them.19:10 For the Testimony of-Jesus is The Spirit of-Prophecy.22:06 And The Lord, The God of-the Spirits …22:17 And The Spirit and The Bride (The New Jerusalem) say Come!God is referred to as a Spirit many times in the Old Testament. The power ofGod to replicate himself as Seven Spirits or Eyes that “go forth into theEarth” as stated in Rev 5:6 (the last mention of the 7 Spirits) comes fromthe Book of Zechariah … “This is The Word of the LORD to Zerub’babel … Not by might, nor byPower, but by my Spirit, says the LORD of Hosts … These Seven are the Eyesof the LORD, which range through the whole earth” (Zech 4:6,10)Daniel Gleason
[] Acts 8.6[] Fwd: FlashCord software – Announcement
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU Rev. Doug Pickrel, Litt.D dpickrel at earthlink.net
Mon Feb 2 17:55:36 EST 2004
[] OT — intro to UBS 4 [] Josephus Against Apion 2:11 I would think, either “the seven spirits of God” or “the sevenfold spiritsof God” would be a correct translation. Isa 11:2 tells us what the sevenspirits of God are:The Seven Spirits of God: 1) “The Spirit of the Lord shall rest upon Him,2) the Spirit of wisdom and 3) understanding, the 4) Spirit of counsel and5)might, the 6) Spirit of knowledge and of the 7) fear of the Lord” Isa.11:2. “TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU.”DougRetired Pastor, SBC—– Original Message —– From: “revelation” <info at revelationjesuschrist.com>To: < at lists.ibiblio.org>Sent: Monday, February 02, 2004 12:48 AMSubject: [] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU> >From Ted Shoemaker> Revelation 3:1 reads, in part:> TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU> “the seven spirits of God”.> I have seen more than one English-language Bible with a> footnote that reads, “Or, the sevenfold Spirit of God.”> It is easy to understand why, for theological purposes, one> might want the footnoted translation. Are there any> linguistic reasons for such a translation?> > Hi Ted> > The linguistic reason, in my opinion, is that the Seven Spirits of God are> title of God and a rhetorical device. I think each of the seven Spirits of> God is a messenger (an angel) to each of the seven cities. In Rev 3:1,> “The-one having the 7 Spirits” is “the one-who-conquers” (nikao), meaning> people in the assemblies, although many would argue that it is Jesus> (referring back to Rev 1:16).> > God is referred to as a Spirit sixteen times in Revelation. The term“Seven> Spirits of God” appears four times in Revelation.> > 01:04 Grace to-you and Peace from “The Being” and “The Was” and “TheComing”> and from the Seven Spirits who-are in-view of his Throne.> 02:07 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 02:11 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 02:17 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 02:29 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 03:01 Says The-One having the Seven Spirits of God and the Seven Stars.> 03:06 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 03:13 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 03:22 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 04:05 and Seven Torches of Fire burning in-sight of-the Throne which arethe> Seven Spirits of God.> 05:06 a-Little-Lamb having-stood like having-been-slain, having SevenHorns> and Seven Eyes which are the Seven Spirits of God having-been-sent intoall> the Earth.> 11:11 And after the Three Days and a-Half a-Spirit of-Life out of God> entered in them> 14:13 Yes! says The Spirit so-that they-will-rest out of their> Cutting-Slaughter for their Works follow with them.> 19:10 For the Testimony of-Jesus is The Spirit of-Prophecy.> 22:06 And The Lord, The God of-the Spirits …> 22:17 And The Spirit and The Bride (The New Jerusalem) say Come!> God is referred to as a Spirit many times in the Old Testament. The powerof> God to replicate himself as Seven Spirits or Eyes that “go forth into the> Earth” as stated in Rev 5:6 (the last mention of the 7 Spirits) comes from> the Book of Zechariah …> > “This is The Word of the LORD to Zerub’babel … Not by might, nor by> Power, but by my Spirit, says the LORD of Hosts … These Seven are theEyes> of the LORD, which range through the whole earth” (Zech 4:6,10)> > Daniel Gleason> > > > —> home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/> mailing list> at lists.ibiblio.org> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/>
[] OT — intro to UBS 4[] Josephus Against Apion 2:11
[] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU Rev. Doug Pickrel, Litt.D dpickrel at earthlink.net
Mon Feb 2 17:55:36 EST 2004
[] OT — intro to UBS 4 [] Josephus Against Apion 2:11 I would think, either “the seven spirits of God” or “the sevenfold spiritsof God” would be a correct translation. Isa 11:2 tells us what the sevenspirits of God are:The Seven Spirits of God: 1) “The Spirit of the Lord shall rest upon Him,2) the Spirit of wisdom and 3) understanding, the 4) Spirit of counsel and5)might, the 6) Spirit of knowledge and of the 7) fear of the Lord” Isa.11:2. “TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU.”DougRetired Pastor, SBC—– Original Message —– From: “revelation” <info at revelationjesuschrist.com>To: < at lists.ibiblio.org>Sent: Monday, February 02, 2004 12:48 AMSubject: [] Rev. 3:1 — TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU> >From Ted Shoemaker> Revelation 3:1 reads, in part:> TA hEPTA PNEUMATA TOU QEOU> “the seven spirits of God”.> I have seen more than one English-language Bible with a> footnote that reads, “Or, the sevenfold Spirit of God.”> It is easy to understand why, for theological purposes, one> might want the footnoted translation. Are there any> linguistic reasons for such a translation?> > Hi Ted> > The linguistic reason, in my opinion, is that the Seven Spirits of God are> title of God and a rhetorical device. I think each of the seven Spirits of> God is a messenger (an angel) to each of the seven cities. In Rev 3:1,> “The-one having the 7 Spirits” is “the one-who-conquers” (nikao), meaning> people in the assemblies, although many would argue that it is Jesus> (referring back to Rev 1:16).> > God is referred to as a Spirit sixteen times in Revelation. The term“Seven> Spirits of God” appears four times in Revelation.> > 01:04 Grace to-you and Peace from “The Being” and “The Was” and “TheComing”> and from the Seven Spirits who-are in-view of his Throne.> 02:07 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 02:11 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 02:17 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 02:29 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 03:01 Says The-One having the Seven Spirits of God and the Seven Stars.> 03:06 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 03:13 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 03:22 The-One having an-Ear, Let-him-hear what The Spirit is-saying to-the> Assemblies.> 04:05 and Seven Torches of Fire burning in-sight of-the Throne which arethe> Seven Spirits of God.> 05:06 a-Little-Lamb having-stood like having-been-slain, having SevenHorns> and Seven Eyes which are the Seven Spirits of God having-been-sent intoall> the Earth.> 11:11 And after the Three Days and a-Half a-Spirit of-Life out of God> entered in them> 14:13 Yes! says The Spirit so-that they-will-rest out of their> Cutting-Slaughter for their Works follow with them.> 19:10 For the Testimony of-Jesus is The Spirit of-Prophecy.> 22:06 And The Lord, The God of-the Spirits …> 22:17 And The Spirit and The Bride (The New Jerusalem) say Come!> God is referred to as a Spirit many times in the Old Testament. The powerof> God to replicate himself as Seven Spirits or Eyes that “go forth into the> Earth” as stated in Rev 5:6 (the last mention of the 7 Spirits) comes from> the Book of Zechariah …> > “This is The Word of the LORD to Zerub’babel … Not by might, nor by> Power, but by my Spirit, says the LORD of Hosts … These Seven are theEyes> of the LORD, which range through the whole earth” (Zech 4:6,10)> > Daniel Gleason> > > > —> home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/> mailing list> at lists.ibiblio.org> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/>
[] Rev 3:16 EMEW Jarek Romanowski romanjaro at poczta.onet.pl
Tue Jul 29 10:38:34 EDT 2008
[] differences [] Rev 3:16 EMEW Hello,In Rev 3:16 we have word: EMESAI from: EMEW. The standard tranlsation from BDAG/BGDA, LSJ, (in TWNT is absent) is: to vomit, throw up. In one of polish literal translation I have met also not eufemistic (colloquially or vulgar rather) meaning like: to puke. (?I?m going to puke you from my mouth?).Is this literal translation correct? Can EMEW mean: to puke?Jarek Romanowski
[] differences[] Rev 3:16 EMEW
[] Rev 3:16 EMEW Elizabeth Kline kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Tue Jul 29 12:18:41 EDT 2008
[] Rev 3:16 EMEW [] Diagraming 1 TI 2:12. On Jul 29, 2008, at 7:38 AM, Jarek Romanowski wrote:> Hello,> > In Rev 3:16 we have word: EMESAI from: EMEW. The standard > tranlsation from BDAG/BGDA, LSJ, (in TWNT is absent) is: to vomit, > throw up.> > In one of polish literal translation I have met also not eufemistic > (colloquially or vulgar rather) meaning like: to puke. (?I?m going > to puke you from my mouth?).> > Is this literal translation correct? Can EMEW mean: to puke?> > Jarek Romanowski> RE. 3:16 hOUTWS hOTI CLIAROS EI KAI OUTE ZESTOS OUTE YUCROS, MELLW SE EMESAI EK TOU STOMATOS MOU.The short answer is yes. The greek word for spit is PTUW and EKTTUW to spit [out] in token of disgust, a figurative expression for rejection with disgust. In Aeschylus we find QEOPTUSTWi which looks like a similar expression in reference to divine displeasure and rejection but may be something more like english expletive g_ddamned.602 H GAR XUNEISBAS PLOION EUSEBHS ANHR603 NAUTHiSI QERMOIS KAI PANOURGIAi TINI604 OLWLEN ANDRWN SUN QEOPTUSTWi GENEI,Elizabeth Kline
[] Rev 3:16 EMEW[] Diagraming 1 TI 2:12.
Rev. 3:3a Eta + Upsilon diphthong > OIDA SOU TA ERGA hOTI OUTE YUCROS EI OUTE ZESTOS> OFELON YUCROS HS H ZESTOS…> > Because both ZESTOS and YUCROS were desirable states, I wonder> if we can understand both in a positive sense.> > ZESTOS being the hot water used for medicinal purposes.> In its initial state, it had a beneficial purpose. So> too with YUCROS. As cold (in its initial state),> it was a cool, refreshing drink…. having a beneficial> affect on those who partook.> > Can we understand YUCROS in a positive sense? I have always> heard YUCROS in the sense of: the Lord would rather you be> either on fire/hot for the Lord, or wanting nothing whatsoever> to do with him (cold). But it seems to me that since the Lord> desired these Laodiceans to be at either end of this spectrum,> that he was not contrasting positive and negative states, but> beneficial states, which existed at both ends.> > Therefore, the KLIAROS being the only “unnatural” or non-beneficial> state.I think your traditional understanding is more correct, although it isquestion what can happen to a cold person.BDAG is self-contradictory in its dealing with this problem.First, the entry on YUCROS has”2. fig. (trag., Hdt.+; Jos., Bell. 1, 357; 6, 16, C. Ap. 2, 255) cool,cold, i.e. without enthusiasm (Epict. 3, 15, 7; Lucian, Tim. 2 …) Rv3:15a, b, 16″This looks rather negative.For the verb YUCW it says:”Make cool or cold (Philo, Leg. All. 1, 5) pass. become or grow cold (Hdt.et al.; Philo, Cher. 88; Jos., Ant. 7, 343), go out, be extinguished of fireand flame (Pla., Critias 120b) fig. (cf. Jos., Bell. 5, 472 of hope)YUGHSETAI hH AGAPH Mt 24:12. M-M.*”It appears to be a negative connotation when the (first) love disappears ora person becomes cold in terms of love.Second, the entry for ZESTOS has:”hot; in Rv 3:15f the underlying idea is that water can be used when it ishot or cold, but when lukewarm it is unpalatable and will be spat out.”So, here they say that even what is cold is useful and therefore positive Iassume, where it was negative above.For the verb ZEW they say:”fig. of emotions, anger, love, eagerness to do good or evil (trag.; Pla.,Rep. 4 p. 440c; Charito 1, 5, 1; Plut., Mor. 1088f; 4 Macc 18:20; Philo,Mos. 2, 280) … of Apollos before he became a full-fledged member of theChristian community with burning zeal Ac 18:25… But the admonition toChristians to be TWi PNEUMATI ZEONTES Ro 12:11 directs them to maintain thespiritual glow.”Looking at the verbs, I get the clear impression that being burning withlove and in the Holy Spirit is good and desirable, supported by ZHLEUE in3:19. But being cold in terms of love is negative.Of course, cold water is nice to drink. But did they drink hot (boiling)water before the advent of tea leaves and coffee beans? How could it bepositive to drink something hot? I think the “spitting out of the mouth” isan idiom for rejection that does not allow us to transfer the “cooled love”idea to cold water, good for drinking.The lukewarm idea is further described in 3:17. The problem is that theythink they have everything (that is they think they are “hot”, burning withzeal”), but in fact they are from God’s perspective cold, naked, lackingeverything. The lukewarm idea seems to be a result of a mixture of hot andcold. They may appear hot on the outside but are cold on the inside. If onlythey realized that the fire in their hearts had been extinguished, it wouldbe possible to be re-ignited. Therefore, realizing one’s coldness is betterthan complacent lukewarmness. If I know I have grown cold, I have thepossibility for repenting and becoming full of burning zeal again (v. 19).Iver Larsen
Rev. 3:3aEta + Upsilon diphthong
Rev. 3:15 Eric S. Weiss eweiss at gte.net
Tue Apr 2 10:16:08 EST 2002
Mark 9:2 Textbooks for Principles of Exegesis Class If the geographic/water-source comments re: Colossae and Hieropolisvis-a-vis Laodicea that I referenced in my earlier response are in factcorrect, I would think that such an explanation would trump a detailedlexical examination of the meanings of “cold” and “hot.” Kind of theOccam’s Razor principle.> > OIDA SOU TA ERGA hOTI OUTE YUCROS EI OUTE ZESTOS> > OFELON YUCROS HS H ZESTOS…> >> > Because both ZESTOS and YUCROS were desirable states, I wonder> > if we can understand both in a positive sense.> >> > ZESTOS being the hot water used for medicinal purposes.> > In its initial state, it had a beneficial purpose. So> > too with YUCROS. As cold (in its initial state),> > it was a cool, refreshing drink…. having a beneficial> > affect on those who partook.> >> > Can we understand YUCROS in a positive sense? I have always> > heard YUCROS in the sense of: the Lord would rather you be> > either on fire/hot for the Lord, or wanting nothing whatsoever> > to do with him (cold). But it seems to me that since the Lord> > desired these Laodiceans to be at either end of this spectrum,> > that he was not contrasting positive and negative states, but> > beneficial states, which existed at both ends.> >> > Therefore, the KLIAROS being the only “unnatural” or non-beneficial> > state.> > I think your traditional understanding is more correct, although it is> question what can happen to a cold person.> BDAG is self-contradictory in its dealing with this problem.> First, the entry on YUCROS has> “2. fig. (trag., Hdt.+; Jos., Bell. 1, 357; 6, 16, C. Ap. 2, 255) cool,> cold, i.e. without enthusiasm (Epict. 3, 15, 7; Lucian, Tim. 2 …) Rv> 3:15a, b, 16″> This looks rather negative.> For the verb YUCW it says:> “Make cool or cold (Philo, Leg. All. 1, 5) pass. become or grow cold (Hdt.> et al.; Philo, Cher. 88; Jos., Ant. 7, 343), go out, be extinguished of fire> and flame (Pla., Critias 120b) fig. (cf. Jos., Bell. 5, 472 of hope)> YUGHSETAI hH AGAPH Mt 24:12. M-M.*”> > It appears to be a negative connotation when the (first) love disappears or> a person becomes cold in terms of love.> > Second, the entry for ZESTOS has:> “hot; in Rv 3:15f the underlying idea is that water can be used when it is> hot or cold, but when lukewarm it is unpalatable and will be spat out.”> So, here they say that even what is cold is useful and therefore positive I> assume, where it was negative above.> For the verb ZEW they say:> “fig. of emotions, anger, love, eagerness to do good or evil (trag.; Pla.,> Rep. 4 p. 440c; Charito 1, 5, 1; Plut., Mor. 1088f; 4 Macc 18:20; Philo,> Mos. 2, 280) … of Apollos before he became a full-fledged member of the> Christian community with burning zeal Ac 18:25… But the admonition to> Christians to be TWi PNEUMATI ZEONTES Ro 12:11 directs them to maintain the> spiritual glow.”> > Looking at the verbs, I get the clear impression that being burning with> love and in the Holy Spirit is good and desirable, supported by ZHLEUE in> 3:19. But being cold in terms of love is negative.> > Of course, cold water is nice to drink. But did they drink hot (boiling)> water before the advent of tea leaves and coffee beans? How could it be> positive to drink something hot? I think the “spitting out of the mouth” is> an idiom for rejection that does not allow us to transfer the “cooled love”> idea to cold water, good for drinking.> > The lukewarm idea is further described in 3:17. The problem is that they> think they have everything (that is they think they are “hot”, burning with> zeal”), but in fact they are from God’s perspective cold, naked, lacking> everything. The lukewarm idea seems to be a result of a mixture of hot and> cold. They may appear hot on the outside but are cold on the inside. If only> they realized that the fire in their hearts had been extinguished, it would> be possible to be re-ignited. Therefore, realizing one’s coldness is better> than complacent lukewarmness. If I know I have grown cold, I have the> possibility for repenting and becoming full of burning zeal again (v. 19).> > Iver Larsen
Mark 9:2Textbooks for Principles of Exegesis Class
Rev. 3:15 Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Tue Apr 2 17:30:37 EST 2002
Participant Reference in John 18:15 Pronunciation and subjunctives In a message dated 4/2/2002 10:15:38 AM Eastern Standard Time, eweiss at gte.net writes:If the geographic/water-source comments re: Colossae and Hieropolisvis-a-vis Laodicea that I referenced in my earlier response are in factcorrect, I would think that such an explanation would trump a detailedlexical examination of the meanings of “cold” and “hot.” Kind of theOccam’s Razor principle._______________________I expect that Carl would rather that we not continue this onlist since it doesn’t directly deal with the Greek text (perhaps he will soon request that it be termnated). While there is still time, however, I would like to request that, if you can provide some source for the details you allege, I would like to be informed regarding them (offlist is recommended).gfsomsel
Anonymous
yes Junior Beasley Duane L Burgess Neil Steven Lawrence Michael Chauncey Darnell Henson Jr. — I would like to see how Philip Williams Link Hudson J.D. King Nelson Banuchi will explain this one from the Greek. It is really NOT that hard 🙂
just for starters Kyle Williams this is a FUTURE prophecy John wrote in 96 AD while you claim the tribulation already happened in 70 AD – how do you explain that?
Anonymous
Troy Day you’re assuming a late date for Revelation, I’ve heard the arguments, I’m unconvinced.
Anonymous
Kyle Williams I do not just assume
I have made scholarly argument from internal evidence
Mainly from the LATE Greek used by John in Revelation
Media: https://www.facebook.com/photo.php?fbid=2010679689316976&set=p.2010679689316976&type=3
Anonymous
Troy Day late Greek? I’m sorry? Lol later than the Greek he used in his Gospel?
Anonymous
Kyle Williams yes late GREEK compared to his earlier Greek used in the EPISTLES … if you had ever translated John you would have known this one
The greater context refers to the “revelation,” not to John. The main subject of Irenaeus’ chapter is about Revelation and the meaning of the number of the Beast being “666” (Rev. 13:18). When Eusebius cites this passage from Irenaeus, he picks up on this main point, creating bookends that refer to Revelation. Before Eusebius cites this excerpt from Irenaeus, he writes, “[Irenaeus] speaks about the Apocalypse of John.” In other words, the book of Revelation is the subject—not John himself. Moreover, after the citation, Eusebius concludes by writing, “These things are related by the aforesaid about the Apocalypse” (Church History, 5.8.5-7.). Modern people might be confused as to whether the subject was the “apocalypse,” but Eusebius is quite clear: John saw “the Apocalypse.”
Third, the verb “saw” (horaō) seems to act on the same direct object. Consider an example from English. What is being eaten in both sentences?
Anonymous
Troy Day if you could gather your thoughts and convey them coherently, we might be able to have a productive conversation. Your copy and paste bluster is nauseating
Anonymous
Kyle Williams of course 🙂
Internal Evidence
Internal evidence comes from within the document itself. In addition to the external evidence from the church fathers, the book of Revelation has many internal indications that support the late date.[73]
ARGUMENT #1: The late date explains why John, Paul, and Timothy never mention one another together in Ephesus.
If the early date is true, then John would have been leading in Ephesus at the same time as Paul and Timothy. Why would Paul leave Timothy in charge of the Ephesian church if the apostle John was there? Moreover, at the end of 2 Timothy, Paul mentions 17 coworkers by name, but he never mentions John. We are not merely making an argument from silence. This is a conspicuous silence. Why wouldn’t Paul mention such a spiritual titan like John? Likewise, why wouldn’t Jesus mention Paul or Timothy when writing to the church of Ephesus? (Rev. 2:1-7) Witherington writes, “The lack of apostolic presence and, by contrast, the presence of powerful prophets (both John and those he calls false prophets) seem to reflect a time after the apostles had died off late in the first century A.D. (cf. the Didache).”[74]
ARGUMENT #2: The late date explains why Paul and Jesus give conflicting reports about false teachers in Ephesus.
Paul’s letters to Ephesus and Jesus’ letter to Ephesus give conflicting reports regarding false teachers. On the one hand, Paul writes about men who “teach strange doctrines” (1 Tim. 1:3) and the “doctrines of demons” (1 Tim. 4:1). Paul even mentions several false teachers by name: Hymenaeus, Alexander, and Philetus (1 Tim. 1:20; 2 Tim. 2:17). Yet, Jesus’ letter to Ephesus tells a different story. Instead of being riddled with false teachers, Jesus says, “You cannot tolerate evil men, and you put to the test those who call themselves apostles, and they are not, and you found them to be false… You hate the deeds of the Nicolaitans, which I also hate” (Rev. 2:2, 6). This is quite unlike the church of Pergamum who “have some who… hold the teaching of the Nicolaitans” (Rev. 2:15).
ARGUMENT #3: The late date explains how the church in Smyrna had time to grow before receiving a letter from Jesus.
Polycarp wrote a letter to the Philippians in AD 110. In it, he states that the Smyrnaeans weren’t believers when Paul wrote his letter to the Philippians in AD 60-61.
[You Philippians] are praised in the beginning of his Epistle. For concerning you he boasts in all the Churches who then alone had known the Lord, for we had not yet known him.[75]
Polycarp was the bishop of Smyrna. So, his use of the plural “we” refers to “the church at Smyrna,” which would “indicate that that church was not in existence at the time in question.”[76] Put simply, Polycarp is claiming that “when Paul wrote Philippians no Smyrneans had yet been evangelized.”[77]
Craig Blomberg[78] and Gordon Fee[79] date Philippians to AD 61. Therefore, Polycarp maintains that the church in Smyrna didn’t exist before this time. This, of course, carried difficulties for the early date advocate. It requires a church entering Smyrna and springing up all within a 4-5 year span. Acts 19:10 says that “All who lived in Asia heard the word of the Lord,” but this is hyperbolic language. This doesn’t mean that a church specifically existed in the city of Smyrna. Moreover, Paul never mentions a church existing in Smyrna in any of his letters.
ARGUMENT #4: The late date explains how the church in Laodicea had time to plummet spiritually by AD 65.
D.A. Carson, Douglas Moo,[80] and P.T. O’Brien[81] date Colossians to AD 60-61. Paul mentions a thriving church in Laodicea at this time (Col. 2:2; 4:13, 16). However, if Revelation was written in AD 65, then this church must have plummeted spiritually in just a few years. In fact, they had become so bad, that Christ threatened to vomit them out of his mouth! (Rev. 3:16) Of course, spiritual decline can occur quickly (Gal. 1:6), but which is more likely? A quick decline or a slower decline?
ARGUMENT #5: The late date explains Jesus’ words to the church in Laodicea in light of the great earthquake of AD 60.
The entire region around Laodicea suffered a massive earthquake in AD 60. In fact, the region suffered until at least AD 80,[82] and the “archaeological evidence at Laodicea points to a thirty-year rebuilding process.”[83]
And yet, Jesus told the Laodiceans that they are “wealthy” and “have need of nothing” (Rev. 3:16). If the early date is true, it would be quite cruel to tell a destroyed city that they are “wealthy” and “have need of nothing.” However, if the late date is true, this would make perfect sense. Tacitus mentions that the Laodiceans refused all aid from the Roman Empire after the earthquake.[84] They rebuilt their city all on their own, because they were “wealthy” and had “need of nothing.” Hemer writes, “There is good reason for seeing Rev. 3.17 against the background of the boasted afluence [sic] of Laodicea, notoriously exemplified in her refusal of Roman aid and her carrying through a great programme of reconstruction in a spirit of proud independence and ostentatious individual benefaction.”[85]
Anonymous
Troy Day how is copy an pasting work from elsewhere conducive to our conversation now. Is this your work?
Anonymous
I’m not knowledgeable of Greek so, all I can say is that God’s keeping doesn’t necessarily mean a rapture before the tribulation; that’s interpreting beyond what the text reads or squeezing one’s eschatological into the text. God can keep a person through tribulation, even keeping them through it without a scratch if He chose to do so. I don’t think the Greek would make it any different one way or the other.
Anonymous
Kyle Williams
Here’s where they come up with the date of Revelation.
Irenaeus 5 chapter 30
Ch 30
1. Such, then, being the state of the case, and this number being found in all the most approved and ancient copies [of the Apocalypse], and those men who saw John face to face bearing their testimony [to it]; while reason also leads us to conclude that the number of the name of the beast, [if reckoned] according to the Greek mode of calculation by the [value of] the letters contained in it, will amount to six hundred and sixty and six; that is, the number of tens shall be equal to that of the hundreds, and the number of hundreds equal to that of the units (for that number which [expresses] the digit six being adhered to throughout, indicates the recapitulations of that apostasy, taken in its full extent, which occurred at the beginning, during the intermediate periods, and which shall take place at the end),
(And then a little further down it says)
We will not, however, incur the risk of pronouncing positively as to the name of Antichrist; for if it were necessary that his name should be distinctly revealed in this present time, it would have been announced by him who beheld the apocalyptic vision. For that was seen no very long time
since, but almost in our day, towards the end of Domitian’s reign.
(I really don’t see how they determine the date from this passage from Irenaeus, yes Domitian reign ended around 96 A.D. But this passage is referring to the time John was seen. And John didn’t mention it. So what, that doesn’t mean it was written around that same time.
Also according to historical sources, the city of Laodicea it was still in ruins during that time from the massive earthquake it suffered. It seems that they may have suffered through some judgment.
Anonymous
Brett Dobbs I understand why they can say that. I get it. I used to argue from the same vantage point for the late date. External evidence is extremely scant and therefore subject to scrutiny that I just don’t think it can withstand. I think the strongest evidence for the early date is found within the text itself.
Primarily I see that Chapter 11 offers the greatest evidence internally. In Chapter 11 according to a straight forward reading of the text the Temple in the Holy City (Jerusalem) is still standing and John is given a Reed and told to measure it. Based on that, I would think logically one would have to conclude a date prior to 70.
Anonymous
Kyle Williams yeah that’s good point as well. I’m still studying some of these aspects through. I’ve recently been looking into the amillenium perspective. And it’s really making sense the more I’m looking.
Anonymous
Brett Dobbs I held the Amillenial position longer than I have any other eschatological position. Although I have found myself convinced of the merits of postmillenialism over about the past year or so.
Anonymous
Kyle Williams interesting. It was actually because of a post millennial that I began looking deeper into Amill.
I definitely don’t agree with the post millennial view. I do agree and love the motive and goal and mentality behind it. But I can’t fully get the logic of it coming to fruition in that way.
Anonymous
Kyle Williams AD70ism is false teaching that must resort to erroneously allegorizing and spiritualizing of the text.
There is no biblical or historical fulfillment yet for Daniel’s 70th week.
Unless and until you embrace God’s unique distinctions for ethnic national Israel and for the Church you cannot get prophecy and Scripture right.
The problem is, you are arrogant, prideful, with an unteachable spirit, and have no understanding of biblical hermeneutics or exegesis.
Anonymous
Brett Dobbs Those of us who adhere to a literal interpretation of prophetic Scripture – as opposed to those who consider it mostly allegorical – very much believe that Israel will build a literal 3rd Temple – the one we who study Bible prophecy from a pre-Tribulation Rapture perspective describe as the Tribulation Temple. This isn’t difficult to imagine since all the construction plans are in place, temple utensils have been crafted, Levites are trained for their forthcoming duties, and I believe even a red heifer is ready to be slaughtered. It is said this temple could be built and ready in some three to six months once the go-ahead is given. The Jews are certainly ready to move forward with this project at a moment’s notice – which they believe will be very soon.
In the book of Ezekiel, the prophet is given an extensive description of the temple which will be used in the Millennium. Two astounding aspects of this are that 1) Jesus will personally sit on the throne in the Holy of Holies in this temple, and 2) David will rule in the flesh as the Prince noted by the prophet – the reality being that it can be no one other than David. These elements bring some interesting speculations into the picture for those of us inclined to consider some of the what-ifs associated with this future scenario.
Anonymous
Will the Tribulation Temple Also Be Ezekiel’s Millennial Temple?
In Ezekiel 40-47 we’re provided with an extensive description through a vision the prophet had of a future temple in Jerusalem along with all its associated aspects
This comes following the final destruction of Jerusalem by King Nebuchadnezzar through his Babylonian army in 586 BC
In the vision, God brings Ezekiel to Jerusalem from the exile in Babylonia
Upon landing on the mountain of Zion, he is greeted by a man “whose appearance was like bronze”
As we’ll see later, it seems that this is likely an angel and not Jesus
This figure has the means to measure the temple that’s resident in the city and proceeds to escort Ezekiel through it various dimensions
We know from what is said in the overall passage that this is a future temple, and not one that would be built immediately following the Babylonian exile, i.e. it won’t be Ezra’s temple in Nehemiah’s Jerusalem
Again, we’ll see why later
Ever since the 2nd temple, i.e. Herod’s temple, was destroyed in 70 AD, the Jews in Israel and throughout their dispersion have yearned for another temple in Jerusalem where they could live in the land of Israel that God promised them and worship in that temple
With the regathering of Jews into the reconstituted nation-state of Israel in 1948, that desire has burned within their hearts
The problem they’ve had all these years is that the Temple Mount is managed by Jordan, and Muslims previously built the Dome of the Rock and the Al-Aqsa Mosque on that site
Without clear access to this piece of real estate, Israel has had to refrain from any ambitious building projects in that location
In recent years, the Sanhedrin – the ruling religious body in Israel – has been getting antsy
They want to build a temple to resume their religious activities
As such, they have fully prepared every aspect of this future endeavor
They really are ready to go, but are still prohibited from proceeding
One of my what-if speculations has been that through either or both the Psalm 83 War and Ezekiel’s War, that these two Muslim buildings may actually be destroyed
That being the case, building the new temple would not be a problem
Clear the rubble and away you go
Besides that, if indeed these mosques were eliminated by missile strikes or some such in those wars, then there would be no need for the future Antichrist-brokered covenant to address this particular issue
In a very interesting development the other day in the Israel-Hamas War, Israel actually defended the Al-Aqsa mosque from Hamas missile strikes
Regarding this, the UN ambassador to the United Nations stated:
Anonymous
Kyle Williams do you care to respond to the Internal Evidence from within the document itself. In addition to the external evidence from the church fathers, the book of Revelation has many internal indications that support the late date.[73]
ARGUMENT #1: The late date explains why John, Paul, and Timothy never mention one another together in Ephesus.
If the early date is true, then John would have been leading in Ephesus at the same time as Paul and Timothy. Why would Paul leave Timothy in charge of the Ephesian church if the apostle John was there? Moreover, at the end of 2 Timothy, Paul mentions 17 coworkers by name, but he never mentions John. We are not merely making an argument from silence. This is a conspicuous silence. Why wouldn’t Paul mention such a spiritual titan like John? Likewise, why wouldn’t Jesus mention Paul or Timothy when writing to the church of Ephesus? (Rev. 2:1-7) Witherington writes, “The lack of apostolic presence and, by contrast, the presence of powerful prophets (both John and those he calls false prophets) seem to reflect a time after the apostles had died off late in the first century A.D. (cf. the Didache).”[74]
ARGUMENT #2: The late date explains why Paul and Jesus give conflicting reports about false teachers in Ephesus.
Paul’s letters to Ephesus and Jesus’ letter to Ephesus give conflicting reports regarding false teachers. On the one hand, Paul writes about men who “teach strange doctrines” (1 Tim. 1:3) and the “doctrines of demons” (1 Tim. 4:1). Paul even mentions several false teachers by name: Hymenaeus, Alexander, and Philetus (1 Tim. 1:20; 2 Tim. 2:17). Yet, Jesus’ letter to Ephesus tells a different story. Instead of being riddled with false teachers, Jesus says, “You cannot tolerate evil men, and you put to the test those who call themselves apostles, and they are not, and you found them to be false… You hate the deeds of the Nicolaitans, which I also hate” (Rev. 2:2, 6). This is quite unlike the church of Pergamum who “have some who… hold the teaching of the Nicolaitans” (Rev. 2:15).
ARGUMENT #3: The late date explains how the church in Smyrna had time to grow before receiving a letter from Jesus.
Polycarp wrote a letter to the Philippians in AD 110. In it, he states that the Smyrnaeans weren’t believers when Paul wrote his letter to the Philippians in AD 60-61.
[You Philippians] are praised in the beginning of his Epistle. For concerning you he boasts in all the Churches who then alone had known the Lord, for we had not yet known him.[75]
Polycarp was the bishop of Smyrna. So, his use of the plural “we” refers to “the church at Smyrna,” which would “indicate that that church was not in existence at the time in question.”[76] Put simply, Polycarp is claiming that “when Paul wrote Philippians no Smyrneans had yet been evangelized.”[77]
Craig Blomberg[78] and Gordon Fee[79] date Philippians to AD 61. Therefore, Polycarp maintains that the church in Smyrna didn’t exist before this time. This, of course, carried difficulties for the early date advocate. It requires a church entering Smyrna and springing up all within a 4-5 year span. Acts 19:10 says that “All who lived in Asia heard the word of the Lord,” but this is hyperbolic language. This doesn’t mean that a church specifically existed in the city of Smyrna. Moreover, Paul never mentions a church existing in Smyrna in any of his letters.
ARGUMENT #4: The late date explains how the church in Laodicea had time to plummet spiritually by AD 65.
D.A. Carson, Douglas Moo,[80] and P.T. O’Brien[81] date Colossians to AD 60-61. Paul mentions a thriving church in Laodicea at this time (Col. 2:2; 4:13, 16). However, if Revelation was written in AD 65, then this church must have plummeted spiritually in just a few years. In fact, they had become so bad, that Christ threatened to vomit them out of his mouth! (Rev. 3:16) Of course, spiritual decline can occur quickly (Gal. 1:6), but which is more likely? A quick decline or a slower decline?
ARGUMENT #5: The late date explains Jesus’ words to the church in Laodicea in light of the great earthquake of AD 60.
The entire region around Laodicea suffered a massive earthquake in AD 60. In fact, the region suffered until at least AD 80,[82] and the “archaeological evidence at Laodicea points to a thirty-year rebuilding process.”[83]
And yet, Jesus told the Laodiceans that they are “wealthy” and “have need of nothing” (Rev. 3:16). If the early date is true, it would be quite cruel to tell a destroyed city that they are “wealthy” and “have need of nothing.” However, if the late date is true, this would make perfect sense. Tacitus mentions that the Laodiceans refused all aid from the Roman Empire after the earthquake.[84] They rebuilt their city all on their own, because they were “wealthy” and had “need of nothing.” Hemer writes, “There is good reason for seeing Rev. 3.17 against the background of the boasted afluence [sic] of Laodicea, notoriously exemplified in her refusal of Roman aid and her carrying through a great programme of reconstruction in a spirit of proud independence and ostentatious individual benefaction.”[85]
Anonymous
Not sure what you dont understand in plain English 🙂Link Hudson
I dont think you know what you are talking about actually
but its pretty plainly said – a little Greek may help you again
https://www.pentecostaltheology.com/if-exegeted-correctly-how-would-the-hermeneutical-interpretation-change-in-revelation-310-closed/
Anonymous
Troy Day I switched to my computer and I can see the post now. I often do not see the article or whatever the subject is when I click on or thumb the link to your site.
Anonymous
quite simple actually – not sure why you cant exegete 5-6 words 🙂