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| PentecostalTheology.com"…made man a little lower than the Elohim." Who is he referring to when he says ‘man’ and who is he referring to when he says ‘Elohim’?
Could this verse be speaking about two completely different races i.e. Neolithic peoples compared to Homo Sapiens? Is this from the perspective of the Sumerian Neolithic race who say that the Homo Sapian race are their ‘gods’ and who refer to them as ‘Elohim’ whilst referring to themselves as ‘man’?
Should we see this verse from a different perspective which recognizes that primitive man saw himself as ‘man’ or slaves and saw Homo Sapiens as ‘gods’?
I refer here to the original indigenous occupants of Mesopotamia (the cradle of civilization) who lived in this area for tens of thousands of years before the arrival of Homo Sapiens.