Does Psalm 51:5 indicate that David was the illegitimate son of Jesse Or his woman?

Does Psalm 51:5 indicate that David was the illegitimate son of Jesse Or his woman?

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Psalm 51:5

5 Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, And in sin my
mother conceived me.

( The following youtube video link will lead to a video of a Charismatic/Pentecostal Pastor named Brian Carn who mentions that some Theologians indicate that Psalm 51:5 suggests that David was illegitimate(bastard) child:

https://youtu.be/Jdxmt_70zG0?t=1516

)

I would like make Arguments Against some theologians who state that Psalm 51:5 could be hinting/suggesting/indicating that David was an illegitimate(bastard) son of either Jesse or the wife of Jesse.

The reason being is that whenever the Bible usually mentions some kind of genealogy descendant tree then there usually is an indication if someone is of illegitimate birth, born to a different mother/father than his/her siblings or born to a concubine

-Jesus Christ birth is clearly indicated as being conceived when The Holy Spirit came upon Mary:

(Luke 1:34-35)

34 Mary said to the angel, “How [w]can this be, since I
[x]am a virgin?” 35 The angel answered and said to her, “The Holy
Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will
overshadow you; and for that reason the [y]holy Child shall be called
the Son of God.

(Matthew 1:18)

18 Now the birth of Jesus the
[p]Messiah was as follows: when His mother Mary had been [q]betrothed
to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be pregnant by
the Holy Spirit.

  • Jephthah the Gileadite in Judges 11 was the son of Gilead and a prostitute. Furthermore, Judges 11 clearly states that the half brothers of Gilead and his wife drove Jephthah away since he was the son of another woman.

( Judges 11:1-2 )

Now Jephthah the Gileadite was a [a]valiant warrior,
but he was the son of a harlot. And Gilead [b]was the father of
Jephthah. 2 Gilead’s wife bore him sons; and when his wife’s sons grew
up, they drove Jephthah out and said to him, “You shall not have an
inheritance in our father’s house, for you are the son of another
woman.”

  • Judges 8:29-31 clearly states that Abimelech was the son of Gideon and a concubine as opposed to his half brothers who were the sons of Gideon and his many wives.

( Judges 8:29-31 )

29 Then Jerubbaal( aka Gideon ) the son of Joash
went and lived in his own house. 30 Now Gideon had seventy sons who
[u]were his direct descendants, for he had many wives. 31 His
concubine who was in Shechem also bore him a son, and he [v]named him
Abimelech.

Therefore, the circumstantial evidence strongly suggest/hint that David was the legitimate son of Jesse and his wife, and his brothers were his full brothers.

Would the aforementioned assessment/inference/deduction be correct?

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