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Meaning of Isaiah 65:16

Meaning of Isaiah 65:16

What does “because he who is blessed in the earth will be blessed by the God of truth” mean?

Because he who is blessed in the earth Will be blessed by the God of truth; And he who swears in the earth Will swear by the God of truth; Be…

To whom was Isaiah referring in Isaiah 53?

To whom was Isaiah referring in Isaiah 53?

I already asked a variant of this question at Christianity.SE.

Consider Isaiah 53:4-6 (NIV), which is commonly interpreted as a prophecy that the Messiah would die for the sins of the world:

4Surely he took up our pain
   …

How many people were involved in the Exodus?

How many people were involved in the Exodus?

According to Numbers 1:20-46 (NJPS):

They totaled as follows:
The descendants of Reuben, Israel’s first-born, the registration of the clans of their ancestral house, as listed by name, head by head, all males aged twenty years and ov…

“Peace and Security!”

“Peace and Security!”

When they are saying, “Peace and security!” then destruction overtakes them suddenly… This article is a continuation of the previous two that were centered on 1Th 4:13­‑18 (Rapture Ready? and Escorting the King of Kings?). The beginning of the very nex…

In the Gospels, Can "Day of:" the Passover – be Interpreted Idiomatically?

In the Gospels, Can "Day of:" the Passover – be Interpreted Idiomatically?


Related:

The Correct Research Methodology To Substantiate If an Expression is an Idiom?

In the early church, was the Last Supper Considered a Passover Feast?

The meaning of παρασκευή (‘day of preparation’)

Luke 22:16 – Did Jesus say he was not going to eat THAT Passover?

Do Idioms Used in the Crucifixion Narrative Resolve the “3 Day/3 Night” Objections?


1. Question:

Is “day of” an idiomatic expression, meaning “general time”?

Why does Luke say the day of the Passover came, when it had not?

Is there any historical evidence, or grammatical rules, that may suggest that this phrase was often used imprecisely, idiomatically?

  • Then came the Day of: …
  • Then came the Feast of: …

  1. Is it possible that: “It’s the Feast of Passover!” – may have have been understood the same way that we understand: “It’s Christmas Time!”, (a generalization, not necessarily the actual day);

  2. Are Verb Tenses Significant? (“Then came:“, Aorist, Imperfect, etc.)

  3. Are there any historical texts, that either confirm or refute this argument?


2. The Text:

NASB, Luke 22:1 – Now the Feast of Unleavened Bread, which is called the Passover, was approaching.

Passover Came:

NASB, Luke 22:7 – Then came, (Ἦλθεν, Aorist Tense) the day

But It Had Not, Yet? :

NASB, Luke 23:17 – Now [Pilate] was obliged to release to them (at / κατὰ) the feast one prisoner.

John 19:31 – Then the Jews, because it was, (Imperfect Tense) the day of preparation, … for a Great Day was that Sabbath.


3. Research in Progress – Feel Free to Use:

Homilies on Matthew (Chrysostom), Homily 81 – And this one calls the day before the feast of unleavened bread, Luke 22:7 speaking of the time when they came to Him, and another says on this wise, Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed; by the word came, meaning this, it was near, it was at the doors, making mention plainly of that evening. For they began with the evening, wherefore also each adds, when the passover was killed.

Note: Although Augustine, (354-439) cited Chrysostom as an authority – I feel that what Chrysostom, (349-407) wrote is not conclusive because those works were not contemporaneous with the New Testament.