bible, theology November 2, 2024

Can we know how or why the Septuagint renders "forever" in Psalm 102:28? No other translation has this

Can we know how or why the Septuagint renders "forever" in Psalm 102:28? No other translation has this

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Can we know how or why the Septuagint renders "forever" in Psalm 102:28? No other translation has this.

Most render this "established." Is there an underlying semantic reason for it to carry the meaning of "forever" or permanence?

Your help is appreciated.

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