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Why did Christ speak in parables?

Mark 4:11-12, Luke 8:10 & Matt. 13:11-15 says that Christ spoke in parables so that the multitude in ‘seeing they would not see’ and ‘hearing they would not hear’, etc.

ESV (Mark 4:11-12) 11And he said to them, “To you has been given
the secret of the kingdom of God, but for those outside everything is
in parables, 12 so that “they may indeed see but not perceive, and may
indeed hear but not understand, lest they should turn and be
forgiven.”

(Luke 8:10) he said, “To you it has been given to know the secrets of
the kingdom of God, but for others they are in parables, so that
‘seeing they may not see, and hearing they may not understand.’

(Matt. 13:11-15) 11And he answered them, “To you it has been given
to know the secrets of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not
been given. 12 For to the one who has, more will be given, and he will
have an abundance, but from the one who has not, even what he has will
be taken away. 13This is why I speak to them in parables, because
seeing they do not see, and hearing they do not hear, nor do they
understand. 14Indeed, in their case the prophecy of Isaiah is
fulfilled that says: “‘“You will indeed hear but never understand, and
you will indeed see but never perceive.” 15For this people’s heart
has grown dull, and with their ears they can barely hear, and their
eyes they have closed, lest they should see with their eyes and hear
with their ears and understand with their heart and turn, and I would
heal them.’

What does this mean? Why do people say Christ used parables to help the people understand clearly, when these passages seem to say he did not want them to understand clearly? Are the parables meant to be concealing yet revealing the truth completely at the same time?

Abrahams resurection [on hold]

James 2:23,,
The fact that Abraham came to be “God’s friend” — and that before
the ransom sacrifice was offered and accepted , mean, that He went to “heavenly life” before the faithful Christian Apostles?

AS REQUESTED QUESTION CLARIFICATION

Another words,
Could anyone go to Heaven without the anointing with Holy Spirit Acts 2:33?

Could Abraham God’s friend, a non-Christian, expect to go to heaven when he died?

or
Could anyone go to Heaven before Jesus Christ?

What is the meaning of "water and blood" in 1 John 5:6?

In 1 John 5:6 John uses water and blood as symbolic short hand, clearly expecting his audience to know the meaning of these two liquids.

6 This is the one who came by water and blood—Jesus Christ. He did not
come by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit who
testifies, because the Spirit is the truth. 7 For there are three that
testify: 8 the Spirit, the water and the blood; and the three are
in agreement. 9 We accept human testimony, but God’s testimony is
greater because it is the testimony of God, which he has given about
his Son.

At its most basic 1 John 5:6 operates as a counter claim to those who hold that Jesus Christ came in water but not in blood. John holds that Jesus Christ came by both water and blood. A counter group appears to believe He came only in water. The structure of this verse as an implicit rebuttal begs the question of what does it refute. What is the meaning of water and blood?