PentecostalTheology .com

For mposts from this author, go to page:

What does "belly" mean in Philippians 3:19?

Many translations of the Bible use the word “belly” in Philippians 3:19:

Their end is destruction, their god is their belly, and they glory in their shame, with minds set on earthly things. (ESV)

The context of the pass…

NT Wright Historicity of Genesis

http://youtu.be/e7f6qL5mHN4 Re-uploaded in response to John Piper talking about the Bible and the age of the earth. Wright talks about how you miss the…

WHO’s going to #MARS?

WHO’s going to #MARS? Alan N Carla Smith [09/29/2015 8:54 AM] CP John Kissinger [09/29/2015 9:24 AM] Charles Page is already there… Alan N…

Enhance Your Ministry Skills

Enhance Your Ministry Skills The best way to enhance your ministry skills, is one skill at a time. Evaluate your ability, decide what skill…

Pentecostal phenomenon

I read this in the CoG Evangel and wondered if anyone else have come across this Pentecostal phenomenon? My home church was set forth…

Does Galatians 1:1 preclude the Lord Jesus Christ from being just a man?

In Gal. 1:1, it is written,

1 Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead;) KJV, 1769

Αʹ Παῦλος ἀπόστολος οὐκ ἀπ᾽ ἀνθρώπων οὐδὲ δι᾽ ἀνθρώπου ἀλλὰ διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ θεοῦ πατρὸς τοῦ ἐγείραντος αὐτὸν ἐκ νεκρῶν TR, 1550

Paul writes that he is an apostle (literally, “one who is sent”) “not from men, neither by man,” but rather, by Jesus Christ and God the Father.

Does such a statement preclude the possibility that, in the eyes of the apostle Paul, the Lord Jesus Christ was simply a man (rather than God-man)?