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What is the difference, biblically and theologically, between agape and phileo. I have read that secular Greek texts/philosophers thought phileo a higher form of love as it refers to intimacy and a desire to love, whereas agape is more a duty bound, more objective type. The Septuagint appears to use both without any sort of rhyme or reason, and indeed in Hebrew there is only one word for love. Where did the notion that agape is some sort of higher, Godly form of love come from?
Anonymous
there is absolutely NO difference
Anonymous
Troy Day If there was “absolutely NO difference” there wouldn’t be different terms!
This is an outrageous lie!!
Anonymous
Duane L Burgess you better be able to prove this from the BIBLE or that outrageous lie you claim will be back on you ??? I will wait
Anonymous
There absolutely are critical differences. They are different terms for a reason.
And EVERY term must be considered in context in every appearance in Scripture.
The most common error in word studies is the failure to consider context.
Anonymous
Duane L Burgess while this may be somewhat true JESUS himself uses them interchangeably. The BIBLE – both NT and LXX never makes explicit difference. Jesus uses them interchangeably in the same context PAUL does as well FROM where any western English difference dont really count as per the BIBLE Michael Chauncey John Digsby John Mushenhouse Brett Dobbs Link Hudson Philip Williams Peter Vandever Neil Steven Lawrence Larry Dale Steele
Anonymous
Duane what about John 11 and the two uses of what we translate love.
Anonymous
John Mushenhouse More Greek examples from the Agape: A Correction in Love? page.
Is agapao (sometimes spelled agapeo) God’s love and phileo man’s love, as a few misguided Christian teachers assert? Are these words used this way in Scripture? We have previously shown how agapao is used for sin, and how phileo is used by God of us in biblical passages, showing that the popular teaching is clearly wrong.Here are three interesting example pairs of scriptures to illustrate how the two Greek words agapao and phileo were used often in the Bible as near synonyms, and interchangeably.
Concerning John the beloved disciple:
John 21:20 (NIV) Peter turned and saw that the disciple whom Jesus loved [agapao]…
John 20:2 (NIV) She came running to Simon Peter and the other disciple, the one Jesus loved [phileo]…
Note that both were written by this very disciple, who used the terms interchangeably as well in Peter’s restoration (see link for more on this, below). But onward to the next example.
Hebrews 12:6 (NIV) “The Lord disciplines those he loves [agapao], and he punishes…”
Revelation 3:19 (NIV) “Those whom I love [phileo] I rebuke and discipline…”
The above and below do not really need any commentary.
Luke 11:43 (NIV) “…love [agapao] the most important seats in the synagogues and greetings in the market-places.”
Luke 20:46 (NIV) “…love [phileo] to be greeted in the market-places and have the most important seats in the synagogues.”
It would seem that these words are not as crisp as advertised, but rather that in these cases they are used as effective synonyms…
To return to where you were, hit “BACK”.
If you have not come from there, see the document: Agapao, A Correction in Love.
For more on agape and phileo in relation to John’s description of Peter’s restoration, click to the left.
For more Greek misogesis gaffs, see Harmatia, Rhema, and Logos in the Sacred Cows section.
For an appeal to stop dropping Greek words where it is not edifying, but rather an obvious a form of showing off for teachers, see the document: Use and Misuse of Greek and Hebrew.
Anonymous
agape is Gods love.
phileo is human love/affection
Anonymous
James Pinkerton
Katie N Dakota Morrow
Is it the same?
Anonymous
Brett Dobbs how would they know?
Anonymous
John Digsby says who?
Anonymous
Troy Day anybody who studies source words.
Anonymous
John Digsby Ive posted extensively from the BIBLE whereas agape and phileo are interchangeable. Do you have ANY example @ all that they are not?
Anonymous
Troy Day
Eros (romantic love),
Phileo (brotherly love),
Agape (God’s divine love)
web search for “agape vs phileo”
Anonymous
John Mushenhouse Duane L Burgess The argument made by the scholars is that Jesus asked Peter if he had the highest form of love for Him. However, Peter could only say that he had the lower form of love for His Saviour. Finally, the third time He asked the question using the word for the lower form of love. This showed that Jesus was satisfied if Peter could only love Him with phileo love. This argument is found in H. A. Ironside’s commentary on John and in many others. However, your argument seems to approach the interpretation differently. F. F. Bruce in his commentary on John says concerning the interpretation of the Greek words for love in this passage: “But those who see a difference in force between the two verbs here are not agreed on the nature of the difference.” According to Trench, Peter finds the first two instances as “far too cold” and wants a more affectionate word for love. But according to Westcott, the first word (agape) is too high and Peter pushes for a more human word for love.
Bruce continues: “When two such distinguished Greek scholars (both, moreover, tending to argue from the standards of classical Greek) see the significance of the synonymns so differently, we may wonder if indeed we are intended to see such distinct significance.
Let us consider these facts:
The Verbs Agapao And Phileo Are Used Interchangeably In The Septuagint To Render One And The Same Hebrew Word (E.G. In Genesis 37:3 Jacob’s Preferential Love For Joseph Is Expressed By Agapao But In The Following Verse By Phileo).
The Verb Agapao In Itself Does Not Necessarily Imply A Loftier Love; It Does So When The Context Makes This Clear (On The Other Hand, In 2Timothy 4:10 Demas’s Regrettable Love For ‘This Present World’ Is Expressed By Agapao).
More Important Still For Our Present Purpose Is The Fact That John Himself Uses The Two Verbs Interchangeably Elsewhere In His Gospel, E.G. In The Statement That ‘The Father Loves The Son’ (Agapao In 3:35; Phileo In 5:20) And In References To ‘The Disciple Whom Jesus Loved’ (Agapao In 13:23; 19:26; 21:7, 20; Phileo In 20:2). It Is Precarious, Then, To Press A Distinction Between The Two Synonyms Here.”
http://www.acts17-11.com/cows_agape_phileo.html
Agapao and Phileo as Synonyms
Anonymous
Troy Day Two different terms, two different meanings.
Stop with the nonsense.
Anonymous
Duane L Burgess defined by who? by Link Hudson non-greeker?
by Attic and Ionic, Aeolic, Arcadocypriot, and Doric who used these terms in the occult praxis of false gods ?
by secular western philosophy ?
NO SUCH 2 terms are defined by the BIBLE
Show from the BIBLE how are they NOT interchangeable ?
occult praxis of false gods and secular western philosophy is the REAL nonsense here – the BIBLE is NO nonsense
Anonymous
Troy Day Why are you throwing my name out there on this conversation. I don’t have much of an opinion on this issue, except that some pronouncements some preachers have made about the range of meaning for ‘agape’ do not align with it’s usage in scripture, which is broader. Is there any context that can prove phileo means the exact same thing as agape?
Anonymous
Link Hudson I was responding to your post from 17h ago that said
“Isn’t phile used as ‘friend’ a form of address for a steangwr, kind of like comrad also? That may be from a textbook
In the LXX Amnon had agape…”
did you not write this? is everything OK with your profile and all?
Indeed the verb agapao and agape occurs five times in the sordid story of Amnon and Tamar in 2 Sam 13:1, 4, 15 (twice) and 21 of the LXX. In 2 Samuel 13, Amnon is said to “love” his beautiful sister Tamar (v. 1). The verb “love” is apparently translated agapao, the verb form of agape, in the Septuagint. Long story short, Amnon tricks Tamar into a situation leading to rape due to his “love” for her, the chapter explains. Very rarely does one word have one single meaning in all contexts. If that were the case, then high quality machine translation would be possible, since replacing one word by another would be mechanical.
Anonymous
Troy Day I did not agree with the ‘two different meanings’ approach, so I don’t know why you mentioned me. But I don’t know that the two words are exactly identical either.
Anonymous
Link Hudson I mentioned you in regard of your comment – can you PLS just discuss without all the personal drama? It’s getting old and tiring
Anonymous
Duane L Burgess More Greek examples from the Agape: A Correction in Love? page.
Is agapao (sometimes spelled agapeo) God’s love and phileo man’s love, as a few misguided Christian teachers assert? Are these words used this way in Scripture? We have previously shown how agapao is used for sin, and how phileo is used by God of us in biblical passages, showing that the popular teaching is clearly wrong.Here are three interesting example pairs of scriptures to illustrate how the two Greek words agapao and phileo were used often in the Bible as near synonyms, and interchangeably.
Concerning John the beloved disciple:
John 21:20 (NIV) Peter turned and saw that the disciple whom Jesus loved [agapao]…
John 20:2 (NIV) She came running to Simon Peter and the other disciple, the one Jesus loved [phileo]…
Note that both were written by this very disciple, who used the terms interchangeably as well in Peter’s restoration (see link for more on this, below). But onward to the next example.
Hebrews 12:6 (NIV) “The Lord disciplines those he loves [agapao], and he punishes…”
Revelation 3:19 (NIV) “Those whom I love [phileo] I rebuke and discipline…”
The above and below do not really need any commentary.
Luke 11:43 (NIV) “…love [agapao] the most important seats in the synagogues and greetings in the market-places.”
Luke 20:46 (NIV) “…love [phileo] to be greeted in the market-places and have the most important seats in the synagogues.”
It would seem that these words are not as crisp as advertised, but rather that in these cases they are used as effective synonyms…
To return to where you were, hit “BACK”.
If you have not come from there, see the document: Agapao, A Correction in Love.
For more on agape and phileo in relation to John’s description of Peter’s restoration, click to the left.
For more Greek misogesis gaffs, see Harmatia, Rhema, and Logos in the Sacred Cows section.
For an appeal to stop dropping Greek words where it is not edifying, but rather an obvious a form of showing off for teachers, see the document: Use and Misuse of Greek and Hebrew.
Anonymous
Isn’t phile used as ‘friend’ a form of address for a steangwr, kind of like comrad also? That may be from a textbook
In the LXX Amnon had agape for his sister Tamar before ge raped her. In the Bible Paul wrote that Demas loved this present world
Anonymous
Link Hudson says who? humanistic Gnosticism or the BIBLE ?
Anonymous
Duane L Burgess John Digsby our good friend Link Hudson gave a BIBLE example for John Mushenhouse of Amnon agape-loving his sister Tamar while raping her. Are yall still holding this is the GOD-type of love used in the LXX or what?
Anonymous
Troy Day i dont use the lxx, just like i dont use an niv.
Anonymous
John Digsby obviously
Anonymous
color me, not to have the dilemmas you have
Anonymous
John Digsby how do you know that?
Anonymous
Troy Day cuz you are you and i ve read your comments.