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But in fact Christ has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits[ἀπαρχή] of those who have fallen asleep.
-1 Corinthians 15:20
The ἀπαρχή here is in the singular form and seems to clearly be in reference to the singular Christ, however, in almost every translation, it is rendered as a plural compound noun firstfruits as opposed to a singular firstfruit.
This seems odd to me. Why would the translators almost uniformly present Christ conceptually as a plural?
It seems more natural to me to view Christ as the firstfruit instead of the firstfruits since he is one person, and so it seems useful to rendor ἀπαρχή as singular at least in my head.
Should ἀπαρχή instead be singular in English translations to match the Greek singular form and Christ, the singular referent?
Anonymous
tell us oh thou Philip Williams Link Hudson because John Mushenhouse knows
Anonymous
He is the fulfillment of the Feast of the Firstfruits, having risen on that very day.
Anonymous
The word was translated as firstfruits from the OT and has a long translation history. Is firstfruit a word in the Englush language?
Some translators may use it someday to make the translation different enough from other translations for the sake of copyright.
Anonymous
Link Hudson It is an allusion to a sheaf of the first-fruits of the barley harvest which was reaped and “waved before the Lord,” as a joyful pledge of the full harvest to come (Leviticus 23:10-11; Leviticus 23:15-16). Even so, on the morrow after the first Sabbath of that Passover when our Lord was crucified being the first day of the week did He rise “the First-fruits of His sleeping people.”– it became a term used, but the noun is singular. Knowing the traditional ceremony of the waving gives understanding to why “firstfruits” is used. A.T. Robertson says to offer firstlings or first-fruits. It is a singular offering but the plural is used to express the many ceremonial offerings.
Anonymous
Link Hudson What long translation history?
Anonymous
Troy Day iknow it’s in the KJV, so at least hundreds of years.
Anonymous
Link Hudson you must have an original 1611 KJV to make such broad assumption. No one has ever heard of translators who make the translation different enough from other translations for the sake of copyright. This is another broad assumption – you must be a translator
Anonymous
Troy Day it’s how copyright works. Why are newer translations often suboptimal worded? They almost have to be more dynamic equivalence now to have a copyright nit open to dispute.
Anonymous
Link Hudson I have consulted on multiple translations NET being among the last few and have never been guided or even heard of such foolish rule.
Anonymous
Troy Day why not just copy the NASB or NKJV word for word then? If you suggested the same wording, what would they say? What would the editor say?
If it’s a paper a loose rule of thumb for plagiarism is 5 words or phrases the same without quotes.
Anonymous
Link Hudson NKJV deviates following TR
have you even read through the whole NASB – Oxford edition?
It used to be the standard in any theological studies or research
I had you for more of an NIV/NLT medium reader
Anonymous
Troy Day I like the NKJV partly because it is similar to the KJV I memorized out of and for formal equivalence. I use ESV sometimes because I found a free phone app. Still use KJV for certain things occasionally.
Anonymous
Can we connect this to the feasts? If Passover is his death, our death, that is the planting of the seed that resurrects. We become the firstfruits of Jesus. His Coming is the Feast of the Ingathering, preceded by Trumpets.
Anonymous
Philip Williams we may be able to but can we is a whole different story
Anonymous
Really?
Serious students of Scripture would never ask such a foolish question.
aparché: the beginning of a sacrifice, i.e. the first fruit
Usage: the first-fruits, the earliest crop of the year, hence also met., for example, of the earliest converts in a district; there is evidence in favor of rendering in some passages merely by: sacrifice, gift.
Anonymous
Duane L Burgess you missed why the plural translation of a singular noun. Why did they do that? You just gave the general knowledge but never addressed the post.
Anonymous
John Mushenhouse yeah Duane L Burgess also copied straight from Strong’s Greek: 536. ἀπαρχή (aparché) which a Serious students of Scripture would never do
Anonymous
God is indivisible
Anonymous
meaning?